ISRAEL, THE CHURCH
& CHRIST'S RETURN
By Eugene Garner
WHAT MINISTRY DID GOD PURPOSE FOR THE JEWISH NATION?
To whom would they minister and give light? (Psalm 67:96-98;
What did God want to accomplish through them? Psalm
81:13-16; Isa. 52:10)
WHAT EXPECTATION AND HOPE WAS HELD BEFORE THEM IF THEY WOULD
OBEY HIS VOICE? (Deut. 28:13-14)
Who would be their King? (Judg. 8:22-23; I Sam. 8:7;
Would they have a special relationship to God? (Ex. 6:7-8;
29:45; Lev. 26:12; Zech. 8:8)
What would He make of them? (Ex. 19:6)
How would they be uniquely blessed? (Ex. 19:5)
Would He make them a blessing to others - remembering His
covenant to Abraham? or were THEY the exclusive objects of His love?
DID THE NATION FAITHFULLY FULFIL THE TASK COMMITTED TO IT?
Did the people promise? (Ex. 19:7)
How did they fail? (Psa. 78:10-11; 1 Sam. 8:7; 10:19)
In the wilderness? (Num. 14)
Principle: "According to thy faith...."
In the land? (Judges 1:27-36; 3:1-7)
Why did they fail? (Jer. 7:23-29)
Was unbelief a factor? (Heb. 3:9-4:3; Psa. 78:19-22; 106:7,
24; Isa. 7:9; 53:1-3)
Was self-righteousness a hindrance? (Deut. 9:4-6; Isaiah
Was it their unwillingness to share their blessings? (Ezek.
34:18; Mal. 1:10; 1 Jn. 3:17; Lk. 10:30-37)
What about their self-centeredness? (Lk. 18:11; 2 Tim. 3:2)
and self-will? (Ex. 32:9; Deut. 9:13; 1 Sam. 8:19; Jer. 44:16-17; Zech.
And were they not blinded by presumption? (Num. 15:30 Deut.
29:19-20; Isa. 29:15-16; 45:9-10; Mal. 1:6-7, 12; 3:7-8, 13; Jn. 8:33, 41)
TO WHOM DID JESUS CHRIST FIRST COME ANNOUNCING HIS KINGDOM
AS "AT HAND" - offering to establish it, on certain conditions? (Matt. 15:24)
Lost sheep? (Matt. 10:6; 18:11)
Lost from what?
From personal salvation? or
From "the fold" - the sphere of His covenant-dealings, and
the effecting of His Kingdom-purpose? (See Parables of Luke 15)
How did they BECOME "lost sheep"? (Jer. 50:6)
Who is responsible for the sheep? (1 Pet. 5"l-4; Jn.
21:15-17; Heb. 13:7, 17)
WHAT BASIC CONDITION DID JESUS ATTACH TO HIS OFFER OF THE
KINGDOM TO ISRAEL? (Matt. 4:17)
What is REPENTANCE? (See Illus. in 2 Cor. 7:9-11)
A "change of mind" and attitude toward whom?
Toward themselves? (How?)
Toward God? (How?)
Toward the Gentiles? (How?)
What evidence of repentance would be required? (Matt. 3:8-9;
DID THE JEWISH NATION REPENT AT THE PREACHING OF JESUS AND
JOHN THE BAPTIST?
Was it not necessary for Jesus to upbraid them because of
their lack of repentance? (Matt. 11:20-24; 12:41-42; 21:28-32)
What parable of Jesus Illustrates the fruitlessness of the
nation, and shows His awareness of their unwillingness THEN to
render unto God His due portion? (Matt. 21:33-46)
DID JESUS WITHDRAW THE CONDITION AND ESTABLISH THE KINGDOM
IN ISRAEL WITHOUT A NATIONAL REPENTANCE?
Had God promised Himself "into a corner" - so far as His
dealings with the nation were concerned? or did He leave Himself room for
flexibility as to HOW He would fulfil His promise?
Would it be necessary for Him to compromise with them in
order to carry out His purpose? (Rom. 11:29; Isa. 14:24, 26-27)
Does God work according to an inflexible time-table? (2
What parable shows that God postponed the fulfillment of His
promise to establish the Kingdom? (Lk. 19:11-27)
Did God's promise fail?
Or did the nation fail to meet God's condition?
Must there not be a "willing" people for the completion of God's purpose?
(Psa. 110:1-3; comp. Matt. 23:37)
WHAT WAS THE NATION'S ATTITUDE TOWARD HER RIGHTFUL KING? (Matt. 11:19; Jn. 1:11)
Wasn't there a time when the people tried to take Him by
force and make Him king? (Jn. 6:15; comp. 18:36)
What changed their attitude? (Jn. 12:19; Matt. 27:18; Mark
11:18; Jn. 15:22-25; Matt. 21:38)
What was the nation's reaction to His open offer of Himself
as their Messiah in His Triumphal Entry? (Matt. 21:15-16; Lk. 19:39)
WHAT DID THE NATION ULTIMATELY DO WITH HER TRUE MESSIAH?
Have the Jews yet changed their attitude toward Jesus, the Christ?
What inconsistency did Jesus prophecy about their rejection
of the true Messiah? (Jn. 5:43)
Is there any indication that they will change their mind
toward Him before His supernatural intervention to deliver them from the
destructive power of the Antichrist, by whom they will be deceived?
WHAT DID JESUS SAY WOULD HAPPEN BECAUSE THE JEWS WERE SUCH
UNFAITHFUL TENANTS? (Matt. 21:43; 8:11-12; 1 Sam. 15:22-26)
Does this suggest the loss of PERSONAL SALVATION for individual Jews?
Does it not, rather, suggest the loss of covenant Standing
for the nation?
What is meant by "covenant standing"?
Did anyone outside of Israel have such a unique and blessed
relationship with God (though saved) while the law of Moses was in effect?
DID THE JEWISH NATION REALLY HAVE THE KINGDOM WHEN JESUS
CAME? OR WERE THEY MERELY "HEIRS" TO IT?
Can there really BE a kingdom without: a king? a people? and
Was there ever a time when this condition existed with
regard to the nation?
Did such a condition exist when Jesus came?
Did the nation then have a real king of the lineage of
Had not the throne and diadem of David been long cast down?
Did the Jews then have actual possession of their
Then, they did NOT actually POSSESS a kingdom, did they?
(comp. Acts 1:6-7)
WHAT PROPHECY DID JESUS SPEAK AGAINST THE NATION
(because of their unbelief) WHEN HE WEPT OVER JERUSALEM,
(Matt. 23:38; comp. 1 Kings 9:6-9; Jer. 7:4-15; 22:5; Ezekiel 15)
Was this an after-thought with God?
Could the nation have known the consequence of her rebellion?
Had not God clearly set before them the ways of LIFE and of
DEATH - requiring them to choose?
Had not God Set before them the "curses" as well as the
Had He not stressed the fact that they would choose which by
their response to His word?
Did the nation manifest any real concern?
DOES THIS DESOLATION SUGGEST THE WITHDRAWAL OF GOD'S LOVE?
OR HIS CEASING TO USE THEM AS THE INSTRUMENTS OF HIS SPECIAL COVENANT-PURPOSE?
For how long? (Matt. 23:39; comp. 21:9; Rom. 11:21-25)
WAS THE NEW COVENANT EVER ESTABLISHED WITH THE JEWISH NATION?
Was Jesus willing?
Did the nation not WANT its blessings? (See Acts 1:3-5)
Then, what hindered ? (see John 5:39-40)
IS THE JEWISH NATION NOW IN COVENANT FELLOWSHIP WITH GOD?
WERE THERE NONE IN THE NATION WHO RESPONDED FAITHFULLY TO
THE COMING OF MESSIAH?
What about Simeon and Anna? (Luke 2:21-38)
What about John the Baptist? and the apostles?
HAS GOD EVER BEEN WITHOUT A FAITHFUL REMNANT?
Has He ever left Himself without a witness? (Acts 14:17)
When the Son of Man comes again, will He find the faith
being manifested in men? (Luke 18:8)
IS IT NOT A FACT THAT GOD USUALLY WORKS THROUGH A REMNANT
PEOPLE? (Isa. 1:9; Joel 2:32; Isa. 11:11; 37:32; Ezek. 11:13;
Mic. 2:12; 4:7; 5:7-8; Zech. 8:6, 12; Romans 9:27; 11:5)
Has there ever been a time, since sons were born to Adam,
that God was NOT selective?
Did He reject Cain? and his line of descendants?
Did He accept Abel? also Seth, and his line?
Did God make a SPECIAL CHOICE of Abraham? of Isaac and
Jacob? Of the nation of Israel?
Does He continue to call, out of the world, a special people
unto Himself? (Acts 15:13-18)
WHAT DID JESUS DO WITH THOSE WHO JOYFULLY YIELDED
THEMSELVES UNDER HIS AUTHORITY?
Did He overthrow the unfaithful leaders of the nation and
install His own disciples in positions of influence and worldly esteem?
Did He encourage those Gentiles who followed Him to become
Would not this have seemed the natural thing to expect if He
had not already "cast aside" the nation as His special witnessing agency in the
Did He not, instead, establish a NEW ORDER - the CHURCH
which is called His "body" and "house" - for the fulfillment of His purpose
during this present age?
But, are there not strong implications that He never fully
ceased to deal with, and appeal to, the nation until the temple and city were
destroyed in 70 A.D. (Acts 3:26; Rom. 3:1-3; 9:1-5)?
DID JESUS ESTABLISH A NEW COVENANT WITH THE CHURCH?
Is there any reference to covenant-blood? (Matt. 26:26-28; Heb. 10:29)
Were any blessings added - one of the invariable evidences
of covenant-making? What about the "better things" of the Hebrew epistle?
Was any new responsibility assigned? (Matt. 28:18-20; Mark 16:15)
WAS NOT THIS AT LEAST A PARTIAL FULFILLMENT OF JEREMIAH'S
PROPHECY CONCERNING A NEW COVENANT?
With a Jewish remnant?
With a special endowment of the Holy Spirit? (Acts 1:8; Luke 24:49)
And was there not given a new consciousness of "remission"
of sins (Heb. 10:1-2, 14-22)?
DID JESUS ESTABLISH THE KINGDOM WITH THE CHURCH, AS HE HAD
OFFERED IT TO THE NATION?
WHAT PRAYER DID HE, RATHER, TEACH HIS DISCIPLES TO PRAY
CONCERNING THE KINGDOM? (Matt. 6:10)
What is a New Testament church? When did the first such
church actually begin?
Had Jesus not already begun to "call out" certain baptized
believers (material prepared by the preaching and baptism of
John the Baptist) - forming them into His church? (Matt. 4:18-20)
Then, this was NOT a prayer for God to establish the church, was it?
Should the church still desire and pray for the establishment
of God's kingdom on earth - just as the nation once did?
WHAT DID JESUS DECLARE TO BE THE FATHER'S PURPOSE REGARDING
THE RELATIONSHIP OF HIS CHURCH (little flock) AND THE KINGDOM? (Lk. 12:32)
With what future event is "the blessed hope" of the church
associated? (Tit. 2:13; 2 Tim. 4:1)
Does this involve the expectation of positive blessing
(joint-heirship with Christ) in the coming kingdom? (Rom. 8:14-18)
Does not one narrow, limit and depreciate the vast scope of
"the blessed hope" by regarding it merely, or even basically, as a
"rapture" and escape FROM tribulation?
Has the glory and grace of God been manifested in past ages
by preserving His elect from facing severe trials? (Consider Job, Joseph,
Elijah, Daniel, Jeremiah, Hosea, the Hebrew children and the host mentioned in
Was not the glory and grace of God manifested, instead, in
His marvellously sustaining and preserving His people THROUGH their trials?
Did Jesus "learn obedience" by the things which He suffered?
Would we be less than presumptuous to expect deliverance
BEFORE, or without, TRIBULATION - especially without some SPECIFIC PROMISE to
this effect? (Matt. 24:29-31; Mk. 13:24-27; Lk. 21:25-26)
Was such a promise given?
Whose "wrath" is under consideration in 1 Thessalonians 5:9?
and to whom is the assurance given?
Who inflicts the sore trials and persecutions referred to as
THE GREAT TRIBULATION - while the antichrist still reigns?
Then, would it not be wrong to equate this "wrath" and "tribulation"?
Does a promise of deliverance from the one REALLY guarantee
"immunity" from the other?
DID JESUS TEACH HIS CHURCH TO CONSIDER THE PROMISED
BLESSINGS OF THE KINGDOM TO BE THEIR "INALIENABLE RIGHTS"? OR, DID HE ATTACH
SOME CONDITIONS TO THEIR INHERITING?
Will lives characterized by slothfulness and careless
indifference be acceptable to God? (Matt. 25:26; Heb. 6:11-12; comp. Lk.
Are we not STEWARDS of the manifold grace of God"? and can
stewards escape RESPONSIBILITY? (1 Cor. 4:1-2; 9:17; Col. 1:25; Eph. 3:2; Matt.
Has not God appointed us a definite ministry toward the
fulfilling of His own glorious purpose? (Matt. 28: 18-20; Eph. 3:8-12)
Are there not some things that we are responsible to "make
sure"? (2 Peter 1:10)
ARE THE FULL BLESSINGS OF THE KINGDOM GUARANTEED, OR ARE THEY
AUTOMATIC, FOR ONE WHO IS A MEMBER OF A NEW TESTAMENT CHURCH?
or, are they still conditioned on diligence, fidelity, and even
suffering in Christ's service? (Acts 14:22; 1 Tim. 2:12; 2 Pet.
1:5-12; Rev. 2:10, 25-26; 3:11)
Does this imply that a saved person may actually LOSE his salvation?
Is it not, rather, a warning against high-mindedness and
unbelief? (Rom. 11:18-22; 1 Cor. 10:12-13)
Can there be any doubt concerning the POSSIBILITY of one's losing
his COVENANT-STANDING as a member of Christ's body; thus, of crown
and reward? (comp. Matt. 18:17; 1 Cor. 3:14-15; 5:5; Rev. 2:25-26;
3:11; 2 John 8)
WHAT FIGURES DOES PETER USE TO CHARACTERIZE THE NATURE OF A
NEW TESTAMENT CHURCH? (1 Peter 2:9-10)
Is this "elect race" natural or spiritual? (2 Thes. 2:13; 1 Pet. 1:2)
A " royal priesthood"? (comp. Rev. 5:10)
What sort of sacrifices does this New Covenant ministry
involve? (Rom. l2:l-2; 1 Tim. 2:1-4; Heb. 13: 15; 1 Pet.
2:5; comp. Jer. 33:11)
Is there any REAL biblical basis for applying this to "all
the saved"? Can one consistently do so without ultimately
embracing the "universal church" heresy?
Should not a "holy nation" manifest such purity of life as
will exalt and magnify the name of her righteous God? (1 Jn.
3:3; Rev. 22:14; comp. Isa. 26:1-2)
What is the significance of this "peculiar people"? (Titus 2:11-15)
Does this suggest that these alone are truly saved?
May it not, rather, designate this people as holding a
special relationship of covenant-fellowship with God -
being the special recipients of His covenant - promises
and blessings? (Ex. 19:5; Psa. 135:4; Deut. 7:6; 14:2;
26:18; Mal. 3:17; Eph. 1:14; Tit. 2:14; 1 Peter 2:9)
ARE THERE ALSO OTHER FIGURES USED TO DESCRIBE THE STANDING AND
WORK OF CHRIST'S CHURCH?
Is she likened unto a "Bride", (Eph. 5:21-33) - closely
corresponding to the position and relationship of Israel
under the law? (Isa. 54:1, 5-7; 62:1-4; Jer. 3:8)
Is she likened unto a "House", "Household" or "Dwelling-place
of God, (1 Tim. 3:15; 1 Pet. 2:5) - again corresponding to the
position of Israel under the economy of the "old covenant"?
(Heb. 3:1-6; Acts 2:36; Ezek. 36:22, 32, 37; 45:6)
DOES THIS IMPLY THAT THE RELATIONSHIP OF THE CHURCH TO
CHRIST, IN THIS AGE, IS THE EQUIVALENT OF THAT EXISTING BETWEEN
JEHOVAH AND THE NATION OF ISRAEL BEFORE IT WAS REJECTED? (Rom. 11:17-25)
Were not the "natural branches" cut off?
And have not "wild olive branches" (Gentiles who are
submitting themselves under the authority of Jesus Christ)
been grafted into the VERY POSITION from which they were severed?
HAD NOT JESUS ALREADY SUGGESTED THIS IDEA? (Matt. 21:43)
WHAT BASIC HELP HAS GOD PROVIDED FOR THE CHURCH WHICH THE
NATION DID NOT HAVE?
Was not the law actually designed to convince the nation of its
inability, in the flesh, to meet God's requirements? (Rom. 3:19-20)
Was it not because of this weakness that the law was so
valuable a child-conductor in pointing them to the Christ?
(Rom. 8:3; Gal. 3:19-24)
But, is not the indwelling Holy Spirit given to "help our
infirmities", and to lead us in the way of truth? (John
14:16-18, 26; 16:7-13; Rom. 8:26)
WHAT FAR-REACHING PROMISE DID JESUS MAKE TO HIS CHURCH IN
THE GREAT COMMISSION? (Matt. 28: 18-20)
What is meant by the "consummation of the age"?
Can there be an end to one age without the beginning of another?
Do not the Scriptures indicate that the appearing of Jesus
Christ "in power and great glory" signals the BEGINNING of a NEW AGE?
How early must Christ appear on earth for His coming to be
PRE-millennial (Rev. 20:1-6)? One year? Three? Seven?
What if His coming is TO INAUGURATE the New Age? Will it
still be PRE-millennial?
Then, should not the advocates of an earlier coming identify
their teaching by a more clearly-defined terminology?
And should not such a designation be made ONLY as required
by a plain, grammatical interpretation of at least ONE SPECIFIC SCRIPTURE?
Is one safe in accepting basic doctrines formulated on mere
"implications"? or required by a previous committment to some
biased "THEORY of prophecy"?
Where IS the passage that teaches a future coming of Jesus Christ
"BEFORE THE TRIBULATION"? (See Matt. 24:29 Mark 13:24; Luke 21:34-36)
Is it really HONEST to teach what one cannot actually prove
by the Holy Scriptures?
IS IT UNREASONABLE TO TEACH THAT JESUS CHRIST WILL BE
PRESENT WITH HIS CHURCH ON EARTH (Just as He is Now)
UNTIL THE COMMENCEMENT OF THOSE THINGS SAID TO TAKE PLACE AT
"THE CONSUMMATION OF THE AGE"? (Matt. 28:20)
Is not this REALLY what He promised?
Is He NOW with the church in His PERSONAL body-presence?
Will the Great Tribulation, under the antichrist, be a part
of THIS AGE? or of the millennium?
Does it not begin before the actual consummation of this age?
Is not this while Christ, according to promise, is WITH His
church ONLY through the Spirit? (Col. 1:27)
Did He not warn His church of these trying times? (Matt.
24:25-27; comp. 2 Thes. 2:1-8; Rev. 13:5-10; 2:10; 3:20;
2 Tim. 2:12; 1 Pet. 4:1, 12-19)
Has Jesus received any "commandment" from the Father as to
WHEN He may return to this earth? (Matt. 22:44; Mark 12:36;
Lk. 20:43; Acts 2:35; Heb. 1:13; 10:13)
Having rendered perfect obedience to the Father while on earth,
is it reasonable to expect Him NOW to disobey the Father's commandment -
as would be required should He come before the day of His WRATH begins?
Are not the "powers of the heavens shaken" (spiritual powers of
wickedness), and the antichrist destroyed by Christ's very coming to
establish His kingdom, pour out His wrath, raise the righteous dead,
and reward His faithful people? (Matt. 24:29; 2 Thes. 2:8; Rev. 11:15-18)
Is it not dangerously presumptuous to expect and teach that Jesus
will return SOONER than He said that He would? and in violation of
the Father's commandment?
Can a single passage be found that clearly and unmistakably
designates such a coming?
How could such a passage be harmonized - even if it could be produced?
WHAT IS SAID TO TAKE PLACE AT "THE CONSUMMATION OF THE AGE"?
(Matt. 13:30-43, 49; 24:3)
A Harvest? (comp. Matt. 24:29-31)
Have you ever observed the many signs given by Jesus, in
this chapter, as preceding the consummation? (Matt. 24:3)
Did Jesus connect such a harvest with "a great sound of a
trumpet", and designate it as being "AFTER the tribulation"?
Does not Revelation 11:15-18 place His coming and kingdom
under the "seventh" trumpet sound - the last of a series of
Is there any sound reason for rejecting the order of events
laid down in this passage?
Is there any unbiased reason for failure to consider ALL the
"trumpet" passages in this context? (Matt. 24:31; 1 Cor.
15:51-52; 1 Thes. 4:16)
Is there a single one of these that, taken in its proper
context, fails to harmonize with this time-order?
And does not 2 Thessalonians 2:8 show that the "epiphany"
(shining) and "parousia" (body-presence) are SIMULTANEOUS
- ONE appearing; NOT TWO?
If one will carefully consider those passages dealing with
the revelation (apokalupsis) of Jesus, may he not easily
recognize that it also describes this SAME COMING? (Lk.
17:30; 1 Cor. 1:7; 2 Thes. 1:7; 1 Pet. 1:13; 4:13)
Is there any clear and unequivocal, SCRIPTURAL REASON for rejecting
this idea in favor of a two-phased coming - separated by a period of YEARS?
Or, must rejection be rooted in one's personal preference or prejudice?
Have you ever considered HOW MANY SIGNS Jesus gave (Matt. 24) of things
that would PRECEDE the manifestation of His "body presence" and "the
consummation of the age"?
WERE THE WORDS OF JESUS TO THE 12 APOSTLES ALWAYS ADDRESSED
TO THEM AS INDIVIDUALS? OR, DID HE SOMETIMES SPEAK TO THEM
Was it possible for them, as individuals, to fulfil the Great Comission?
Could they (did they) live "unto the consummation of the age"?
Could they, personally, show forth His death until His return?
Had He not warned them of rejection and death - even showing
Peter the manner of His death?
Could Peter, therefore, have conscientiously taught his
hearers to expect an "imminent" (any-moment) return of Christ?
(1 Pet. 1:13-14; comp. Jn. 21:18-19)
Could ANY of Jesus' imediate followers have done so? (Matt. 24:4-10)
Did Paul - while constantly awaiting the fulfillment of some
definite promise God had made to him for his encouragement?
Should we, if they did not? Would we not be acting both
presumptuously and unscripturally?
If we teach others to expect a deliverance that does not
come, will we not have SINNED AGAINST THEM? Perhaps even
destroy their faith?
OF WHOM WERE THE 12 APOSTLES REPRESENTATIVES - THE JEWISH
NATION? OR THE CHURCH?
In connection with the parables of Matthew 13, did not Jesus
clearly distinguish between "you" and "them"? (Matt. 13:10-17)
When participating in the institution of, and receiving instructions
for the perpetuation of, the Lord's Supper OF WHOM WERE THEY
REPRESENTATIVE? (Matt. 26:26-29; Luke 22:14-20; John 13)
As representative of whom did they receive the Great
Commission? (Matt. 28:18-20)
And of whom were they representative in Jesus' preview and
warning of end-time events? (Matt. 24:4, 9, 15, 23-26; Luke 21:34-36)
Can one afford inconsistency here - in order to perpetuate
an unsubstantiated theory of "times and seasons" toward which
he has been biased?
If one insists on making the apostles "double representatives",
does he not have a responsibility of showing that this is
proper? and needful?
Does not such a person owe his own brethren an explanation
of the principle by which he distinguishes the one from the
other - stated in terms simple enough to enable them to discern
TO WHOM DID JESUS SPEAK AS REPRESENTATIVES OF THE JEWISH NATION?
(Matt. 21:45; 32:2)
WILL THE JEWISH NATION BE RESTORED TO A POSITION OF COVENANT
RELATIONSHIP WITH GOD? (Rom. 11:26; Isa. 33:20-22; Ezek.
37:22-28; 21:25-27; Dan. 7:13-14; Amos 9:11-12; Zeph. 3:14-17,
20; Zech. 6:12-13)
IS THERE ANY REASON TO BELIEVE THAT THE NATION, RETURNED TO
PALESTINE IN UNBELIEF, HAS ALREADY BEEN RESTORED TO THE COVENANT?
May there be a restoration without their prior submission to the Lord?
Without their giving honor and glory to God for His faithful love?
May they truly honor the Father while despising and rejecting His Son?
When will their DESOLATION cease? (Lk. 13:34-35; comp. Isa. 25:9)
DO THE SCRIPTURES ACTUALLY SUGGEST A REINSTATEMENT OF THE
NATION BEFORE THE RETURN OF CHRIST?
Must they not FIRST be cleansed from their filthiness?
Is not the "fountain for cleansing" opened to them ONLY in connection
with Messiah's return? (Zech. 13:1)
Will there be any more danger from their enemies after God
restores them to the covenant-land? (Amos 9:11, 14-15)
HAS EZEKIEL 20:33-44 ALREADY BEEN FULFILLED? OF DOES IT
REFER TO THE FUTURE OF THE NATION?
Is not this a re-gathering connected with the outpoured FURY
of the Lord?
Has there yet been such a restoration?
Was the return from Babylon anything like this?
What about this dealing with them "in the wilderness"? like
He once dealt with their fathers?
Was the former wilderness experience one in which God dealt
with them in His physical body presence? or did He deal with them through a
chosen vessel of their own nation?
If this future face-to-face pleading is to be like the
former pleading "in the wilderness of Egypt", is it necessary
that He be among them in His personal body-presence
Will ALL the Jews be brought back into the bonds of the covenant?
Will not the "rebels" and "transgressors" be purged and
Will they even be permitted to enter the land?
Will "all the house" (involving both the northern and
southern groups) be united IN THE LAND?
Does not God deal with them for a time AFTER gathering them
"out of all countries", but BEFORE bringing them into, and
establishing them "IN the land of Israel"?
Is it not suggested that this will take place in the old
wilderness of Sinai? (vs. 35)
Does not the general tenor of the Scriptures suggest a
direct route to be followed by the hosts of the Lord -
from the region of Sinai, up to Jerusalem? (Isa. 35:8;
16:12; Hab. 3:3-13; Zeph. 1:14-18; Isa. 63:1-6; etc.)
Do the Scriptures REALLY teach that Jesus will either gather
His saints in the air OVER the Mt. of olives? or that His
descent from heaven will be directly TO the Mt. of olives? Now, REALLY?
Is such a thing necessary to the fulfilling of His Word?
Does Zechariah 14:4 REALLY say anything more than that, at a
certain time, "His feet shall STAND in that day upon the
Mount of olives"?
May this not merely suggest His final conquest - the
termination of a series of battles waged against Him
and His people as they march toward Jerusalem to
"possess the kingdom"?
IS IT POSSIBLE THAT EZEKIEL 20:33-44 and REVELATION
12:13-16 DESCRIBE THE SAME THING?
Is there not a wilderness in both? (comp. Hos 2:14-15)
Is there not in both a divine preservation?
Can one imagine that this will be three and one-half years
WHAT "WOMAN" IS SAID TO HAVE BROUGHT FORTH A MAN CHILD WHO
WAS TO RULE OVER ALL NATIONS"? (Rev. 12:5)
THE JEWISH NATION - through whom God had long been working
out His covenant-purpose? or...
THE CHURCH - which did not yet EXIST when the Christ was
born to a virgin in Israel?
IS IT TRUE THAT JESUS FOUND THE NUCLEUS FOR HIS CHURCH IN A
FAITHFUL REMNANT FROM THE JEWISH NATION?
How many Gentiles were there among the apostles?
Was not the New Testament church first established with
material that was EXCLUSIVELY Jewish?
IS IT NOT, THEN, PROPER TO REFER TO THE CHURCH AS BEING
"THE REMNANT OF HER SEED"? (Rev. 12:17)
IS THERE ANY REAL EVIDENCE THAT "THE TESTIMONY OF JESUS
CHRIST" IS COMMITTED TO ANY PART OF THE JEWISH NATION
WHILE OUTSIDE THE COVENANT? (Rev. 12:17)
IS THERE ANY SUGGESTION OF THE NATION'S BEING RESTORED TO
COVENANT FELLOWSHIP WITH GOD BEFORE HER LEADERS CONFIRM A
COVENANT WITH THE ANTICHRIST? (Jer. 32:37-40; Dan. 9:27; Jn. 5:43)
IS IT NOT A BIT PRESUMPTUOUS, BECAUSE OF COMMITTMENT TO
SOME THEORY REGARDING THE TIME OF CHRIST'S RETURN,
TO ARGUE THAT THE JEWS WILL PREACH THE GOSPEL
DURING THE GREAT TRIBULATION - while the church is on a
"honeymoon with Jesus"? Where is the Scripture for such?
OVER WHOM ARE THE TWELVE APOSTLES PROMISED AUTHORITY TO
RULE IN THE COMING KINGDOM OF GOD? (Matt. 19:27-29; Luke 22:28-30)
DOES THIS SUGGEST THAT THE JEWISH NATION AND THE CHURCH
WILL BE MERGED INTO ONE DURING THE MILLENNIUM?
Should not one be careful, lest he be presumptuous or find
too simple an answer?
A glorified people (from the church-age), and a nation in
the flesh (a restored Israel) merged into ONE?
A nation in the flesh, and being RULED over, sharing the
full blessings of the Kingdom? Without bringing forth "fruits
meet for repentance"?
May the nation not, at Christ's coming, merely be restored to the
POSITION from which she was "cut off" (through unbelief), and given an
opportunity, during the millennium, to PROVE HER FIDELITY to the Christ?
As the CHIEF NATION of the earth? (Ezek. 36:24-38; Zech.
10:6; Micah 4:6-8; 7:15-20; Zeph. 3:14-10; Isa. 61:8-11;
Zech. 8:23; Isa. 49:22-23; 66:12; 60:11-12)
As a radiant trophy of His redeeming grace?
As a faithful witness of His stedfast love?
Will they not ultimately lead ALL NATIONS to worship at
Jerusalem? (Zech. 8:20-23; 14:16-20; Rom. 11:12, 15; Psalm 67:7)
IS THE GRACE OF GOD STILL SUFFICIENT FOR THE NEEDS OF HIS FAITHFUL PEOPLE?
Has He ever failed those who trusted in Him?
Is Christ Himself the HOPE of His people today?
Are WE any better, or dearer to Him, than those who have
faithfully and valiantly suffered for Him in ages past?
May we, with confidence in His faithfulness, face the
unknown future without fear?
May we not even "rejoice in tribulation"? (Rom. 5:3)
MAY ONE FACE GOD WITH CONFIDENCE AND BolDNESS IN THE DAY OF
JUDGMENT WHO NOW CLOSES HIS MIND AND REFUSES TO CONSIDER ANYTHING THAT TENDS
TO CHALLENGE THE VALIDITY OF HIS PREFERRED SYSTEM OF INTERPRETATION?
May he even continue to teach, or preach, with a boldness
prompted by the Holy Spirit?
Will he even be able to pray with an honest, humble and
Will he not be DECEIVING himself?
This series of questions
is submitted with a prayer that they may challenge the hearts and minds of God's
people. This is by no means an exhaustive probing; nor is it dogmatic in its
implications. But, no one will be justified in rejecting, ridiculing or condemning
the basic concept, as unscriptural, who has not FIRST fairly considered each question
in its context, and in connection with the suggested Scripture references. The author
asks no more.
God will judge His own servants - fully
considering one's honesty or deceitfulness, openness or partiality before His Word. Nor
will He fail to discern a "fear of man" that surpasses one's fear of Him.
-- Eugene L.